What should users do if they want to install an application in geographically isolated locations?

What should users do if they want to install an application in geographically isolated locations?

100% actual AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner CLF-C01 Exam Questions. Highly recommend for your exam preparation.

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Questions Part 1
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Questions Part 2
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Questions Part 3
AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Exam Questions Part 4

1. Under the AWS shared responsibility model, AWS is responsible for which security-related task?

  • A. Lifecycle management of IAM credentials
  • C. Encryption of Amazon EBS volumes
  • D. Firewall configuration

2. Which AWS service enables users to consolidate billing across multiple accounts?

  • A. Amazon QuickSight
  • C. AWS Budgets
  • D. Amazon Forecast

3. Under the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following is an example of security in the AWS Cloud?

  • A. Managing edge locations
  • C. Firewall configuration
  • D. Global infrastructure

4. How can an AWS user with an AWS Basic Support plan obtain technical assistance from AWS?

  • A. AWS Senior Support Engineers
  • B. AWS Technical Account Managers
  • D. AWS Discussion Forums

5. Which of the following are pillars of the AWS Well-Architected Framework? (Choose two.)

  • A. Multiple Availability Zones
  • D. Encryption usage
  • E. High availability

6. After selecting an Amazon EC2 Dedicated Host reservation, which pricing option would provide the largest discount?

  • A. No upfront payment
  • B. Hourly on-demand payment
  • C. Partial upfront payment

7. What is an advantage of deploying an application across multiple Availability Zones?

  • A. There is a lower risk of service failure if a natural disaster causes a service disruption in a given AWS Region.
  • C. There will be better coverage as Availability Zones are geographically distant and can serve a wider area.
  • D. There will be decreased application latency that will improve the user experience.

8. A Cloud Practitioner is asked how to estimate the cost of using a new application on AWS. What is the MOST appropriate response?

  • A. Inform the user that AWS pricing allows for on-demand pricing.
  • C. Use Amazon QuickSight to analyze current spending on-premises.
  • D. Use Amazon AppStream 2.0 for real-time pricing analytics.

9. A company wants to migrate its applications to a VPC on AWS. These applications will need to access on-premises resources.
What combination of actions will enable the company to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

  • A. Use the AWS Service Catalog to identify a list of on-premises resources that can be migrated.
  • C. Use Amazon Athena to query data from the on-premises database servers.
  • E. Leverage Amazon CloudFront to restrict access to static web content provided through the company’s on-premises web servers.

10. A web application running on AWS has been spammed with malicious requests from a recurring set of IP addresses. Which AWS service can help secure the application and block the malicious traffic?

  • A. AWS IAM
  • B. Amazon GuardDuty
  • C. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

11. Treating infrastructure as code in the AWS Cloud allows users to:

  • A. automate migration of on-premises hardware to AWS data centers.
  • B. let a third party automate an audit of the AWS infrastructure.
  • C. turn over application code to AWS so it can run on the AWS infrastructure.

12. A company requires a dedicated network connection between its on-premises servers and the AWS Cloud. Which AWS service should be used?

  • A. AWS VPN
  • C. Amazon API Gateway
  • D. Amazon Connect

13. Which AWS service can be used to query stored datasets directly from Amazon S3 using standard SQL?

  • A. AWS Glue
  • B. AWS Data Pipeline
  • C. Amazon CloudSearch

14. AWS CloudFormation is designed to help the user:

  • B. update application code.
  • C. set up data lakes.
  • D. create reports for billing.

15. A Cloud Practitioner must determine if any security groups in an AWS account have been provisioned to allow unrestricted access for specific ports. What is the SIMPLEST way to do this?

  • B. Run AWS Trusted Advisor and review the findings.
  • C. Open the AWS IAM console and check the inbound rule filters for open access.
  • D. In AWS Config, create a custom rule that invokes an AWS Lambda function to review rules for inbound access.

16. What are the benefits of developing and running a new application in the AWS Cloud compared to on-premises? (Choose two.)

  • A. AWS automatically distributes the data globally for higher durability.
  • B. AWS will take care of operating the application.
  • E. AWS takes care application security patching.

17. A user needs an automated security assessment report that will identify unintended network access to Amazon EC2 instances and vulnerabilities on those instances. Which AWS service will provide this assessment report?

  • A. EC2 security groups
  • B. AWS Config
  • C. Amazon Macie

18. How can a company isolate the costs of production and non-production workloads on AWS?

  • A. Create Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles for production and non-production workloads.
  • C. Use Amazon EC2 for non-production workloads and other services for production workloads.
  • D. Use Amazon CloudWatch to monitor the use of services.

19. Where can users find a catalog of AWS-recognized providers of third-party security solutions?

  • B. AWS Marketplace
  • C. AWS Quick Start
  • D. AWS CodeDeploy

20. A Cloud Practitioner needs to store data for 7 years to meet regulatory requirements. Which AWS service will meet this requirement at the LOWEST cost?

  • A. Amazon S3
  • B. AWS Snowball
  • C. Amazon Redshift

21. What are the immediate benefits of using the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

  • A. Increased IT staff.
  • B. Capital expenses are replaced with variable expenses.
  • E. AWS holds responsibility for security in the cloud.

22. Which security service automatically recognizes and classifies sensitive data or intellectual property on AWS?

  • A. Amazon GuardDuty
  • C. Amazon Inspector
  • D. AWS Shield

23. What is the purpose of AWS Storage Gateway?

  • A. It ensures on-premises data storage is 99.999999999% durable.
  • B. It transports petabytes of data to and from AWS.
  • C. It connects to multiple Amazon EC2 instances.

24. What should users do if they want to install an application in geographically isolated locations?

  • A. Install the application using multiple internet gateways.
  • B. Deploy the application to an Amazon VPC.
  • D. Configure the application using multiple NAT gateways.

25. A system in the AWS Cloud is designed to withstand the failure of one or more components. What is this an example of?

  • A. Elasticity
  • C. Scalability
  • D. Agility

26. A Cloud Practitioner needs a consistent and dedicated connection between AWS resources and an on-premises system. Which AWS service can fulfill this requirement?

  • B. AWS VPN
  • C. Amazon Connect
  • D. AWS Data Pipeline

27. Within the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for security and compliance?

  • A. The customer is responsible.
  • B. AWS is responsible.
  • D. AWS shares responsibility with the relevant governing body.

28. To use the AWS CLI, users are required to generate:

  • A. a password policy.
  • B. an access/secret key.
  • D. an API key.

29. Which AWS service is used to provide encryption for Amazon EBS?

  • A. AWS Certificate Manager
  • B. AWS Systems Manager
  • D. AWS Config

30. How does AWS charge for AWS Lambda usage once the free tier has been exceeded? (Choose two.)

  • A. By the time it takes for the Lambda function to execute.
  • B. By the number of versions of a specific Lambda function.
  • D. By the programming language that is used for the Lambda function.

31. Which of the following describes the relationships among AWS Regions, Availability Zones, and edge locations? (Choose two.)

  • A. There are more AWS Regions than Availability Zones.
  • C. An edge location is an Availability Zone.
  • D. There are more AWS Regions than edge locations.

32. What does AWS Shield Standard provide?

  • A. WAF rules
  • C. Identity and Access Management (IAM) permissions and access to resources
  • D. Data encryption

33. A company wants to build its new application workloads in the AWS Cloud instead of using on-premises resources. What expense can be reduced using the AWS Cloud?

  • A. The cost of writing custom-built Java or Node .js code
  • B. Penetration testing for security
  • D. Writing specific test cases for third-party applications.

34. What does AWS Marketplace allow users to do? (Choose two.)

  • A. Sell unused Amazon EC2 Spot Instances.
  • D. Purchase AWS security and compliance documents.
  • E. Order AWS Snowball.

35. What does it mean if a user deploys a hybrid cloud architecture on AWS?

  • A. All resources run using on-premises infrastructure.
  • B. Some resources run on-premises and some run in a location center.
  • C. All resources run in the AWS Cloud.

36. Which AWS service allows users to identify the changes made to a resource over time?

  • A. Amazon Inspector
  • C. AWS Service Catalog
  • D. AWS IAM

37. How can a company reduce its Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) using AWS?

  • B. By having no responsibility for third-party license costs
  • C. By having no operational expenditures
  • D. By having AWS manage applications

38. Which activity is a customer responsibility in the AWS Cloud according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

  • A. Ensuring network connectivity from AWS to the internet
  • B. Patching and fixing flaws within the AWS Cloud infrastructure
  • C. Ensuring the physical security of cloud data centers

39. What are the advantages of the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

  • A. Fixed rate monthly cost
  • D. Increased upfront capital expenditure
  • E. Physical access to cloud data centers

40. When comparing the total cost of ownership (TCO) of an on-premises infrastructure to a cloud architecture, what costs should be considered? (Choose two.)

  • A. The credit card processing fees for application transactions in the cloud.
  • D. The costs of third-party penetration testing.
  • E. The advertising costs associated with an ongoing enterprise-wide campaign.

41. Which AWS feature allows a company to take advantage of usage tiers for services across multiple member accounts?

  • A. Service control policies (SCPs)
  • C. All Upfront Reserved Instances
  • D. AWS Cost Explorer

42. What is one of the customer’s responsibilities according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

  • A. Virtualization infrastructure
  • B. Network infrastructure
  • D. Physical security of hardware

43. What helps a company provide a lower latency experience to its users globally?

  • B. Using a second Availability Zone in the AWS Region that is using used
  • C. Enabling caching in the AWS Region that is being used
  • D. Using edge locations to put content closer to all users

44. How can the AWS Cloud increase user workforce productivity after migration from an on-premises data center?

  • B. The AWS Cloud infrastructure is much faster than an on-premises data center infrastructure.
  • C. AWS takes over application configuration management on behalf of users.
  • D. Users do not need to address security and compliance issues.

45. Which AWS service provides a quick and automated way to create and manage AWS accounts?

  • A. AWS QuickSight
  • B. Amazon Lightsail
  • D. Amazon Connect

46. Which Amazon RDS feature can be used to achieve high availability?

  • B. Amazon Reserved Instances
  • C. Provisioned IOPS storage
  • D. Enhanced monitoring

47. Where should users report that AWS resources are being used for malicious purposes?

  • B. AWS Shield
  • C. AWS Support
  • D. AWS Developer Forums

48. Which AWS service needs to be enabled to track all user account changes within the AWS Management Console?

  • B. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
  • C. VPC Flow Logs
  • D. AWS CloudHSM

49. What is an AWS Cloud design best practice?

  • B. Single point of failure
  • C. High availability
  • D. Overprovisioning of resources

50. Which of the following is an example of how moving to the AWS Cloud reduces upfront cost?

  • A. By replacing large variable costs with lower capital investments
  • C. By allowing the provisioning of compute and storage at a fixed level to meet peak demand
  • D. By replacing the repeated scaling of virtual servers with a simpler fixed-scale model

51. When designing a typical three-tier web application, which AWS services and/or features improve availability and reduce the impact failures? (Choose two.)

  • B. Amazon VPC subnet ACLs to check the health of a service
  • D. AWS Server Migration Service (AWS SMS) to move Amazon EC2 instances into a different Region
  • E. Distributed resources across multiple AWS points of presence

52. Which cloud design principle aligns with AWS Cloud best practices?

  • A. Create fixed dependencies among application components
  • B. Aggregate services on a single instance
  • C. Deploy applications in a single Availability Zone

53. Which of the following are recommended practices for managing IAM users? (Choose two.)

  • C. Recommend that the same password be used on AWS and other sites
  • D. Require IAM users to store their passwords in raw text
  • E. Disable multi-factor authentication (MFA) for IAM users

54. A company is migrating from on-premises data centers to the AWS Cloud and is looking for hands-on help with the project. How can the company get this support? (Choose two.)

  • A. Ask for a quote from the AWS Marketplace team to perform a migration into the company’s AWS account.
  • D. Select a partner from the AWS Partner Network (APN) to assist with the migration
  • E. Use Amazon Connect to create a new request for proposal (RFP) for expert assistance in migrating to the AWS Cloud.

55. How does the AWS Enterprise Support Concierge team help users?

  • A. Supporting application development
  • B. Providing architecture guidance
  • D. Answering questions regarding technical support cases

56. An application designed to span multiple Availability Zones is described as:

  • A. being highly available
  • B. having global reach
  • C. using an economy of scale

57. A new service using AWS must be highly available. Yet, due to regulatory requirements, all of its Amazon EC2 instances must be located in a single geographic area.
According to best practices, to meet these requirements, the EC2 instances must be placed in at least two:

  • A. AWS Regions
  • C. subnets
  • D. placement groups

58. Which AWS tool is used to compare the cost of running an application on-premises to running the application in the AWS Cloud?

  • A. AWS Trusted Advisor
  • B. AWS Simple Monthly Calculator
  • D. Cost Explorer

59. A company has multiple AWS accounts within AWS Organizations and wants to apply the Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances benefit to a single account only. Which action should be taken?

  • B. Enable billing alerts in the AWS Billing and Cost Management console.
  • C. Purchase the Reserved Instances in individual linked accounts and turn off Reserved Instance sharing from the payer level.
  • D. Enable Reserved Instance sharing in the AWS Billing and Cost Management console.

60. Which situation should be reported to the AWS Abuse team?

  • A. In Availability Zone has a service disruption
  • C. A user has trouble accessing an Amazon S3 bucket from an AWS IP address
  • D. A user needs to change payment methods due to a compromise

Tags: AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner